Test Psicologia de vuelo Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?

Under what conditions should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status?

. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR

. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority

. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay.

What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC?

. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport

. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport.

. Advisory that indicates an emergency situaion is possible should an undue delay occur.

Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts?

. When collision with another aircraft is imminent.

. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle.

. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity.

What is the hijack code?

. 7200.

. 7500.

. 7777.

Which range of codes should a pilot avoid switching through when changing transponder codes?

. 0000 through 1000.

. 7200 and 7500 series.

. 7500, 7600, and 7700 series.

What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?

. Light and variable.

. Wind shear.

. Frontal passage.

What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?

. Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.

. When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.

. When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.

. 500 feet or less to another aircraft

. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.

What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning?

. Rapid, shallow breathing

. Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.

. Dizziness.

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

. A stressful situation causing anxiety

. The excessive consumption of alcohol.

. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

What causes hypoxia?

. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

. An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.

. A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.

Which is a common sympton of hyperventilation?

. Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.

. Increased vision keenness.

. Decreased breathing rate.

Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases

. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.

. the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased.

. oxygen partial pressure is decreased.

Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?

. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.

. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.

. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.

When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach

. altitude may be higher than it appears.

. altitude may be lower than it appears.

. may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.

The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as

. inversion illusion.

. autokinesis

. somatogravic illusion.

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as

. somatogravic illusion.

. ground lighting illusion.

. autokinesis.

When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may
appear to be too

. high.

. low.

. shallow.

What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?

. Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases.

. Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abbilities.

. Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when

. ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.

. eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

. body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

. Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.

. Rely on the kinesthetic sense.

. Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

. Look only at far away, dim lights.

. Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing

. Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different
axis. This is known as

. autokinesis.

. Coriolis illusion.

. the leans.

Which observed target aircraft would be of most concern with respect to collision avoidance?

. One which appears to be ahead and moving from left to right at high speed.

. One which appears to be ahead and moving from right to left at slow speed.

. One which appears to be ahead with no lateral or vertical movement and is increasing in size.

Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute

. looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat

. 1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat

. looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary

When using the Earth's horizon as a reference point to determine the relative position of other aircraft, most concern would be for aircraft

. above the horizon and increasing in size.

. on the horizon with little relative movement.

. on the horizon and increasing in size.

Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?

. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down

. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is

. developing lift.

. operating at high airspeeds.

. using high power settings.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

. sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

. rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude

. accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip

. Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.

. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft?

. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft.

. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.

. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formarion of vortices.

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?

. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.

. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should

. remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

. Direct tailwind.

. Light quartering tailwind.

. Light quartering headwind.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off

. prior to the point where the jet touched down

. beyond the point where the jet touched down.

. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

. 8 hours.

. 12 hours.

. 24 hours.

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?

. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.

. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.

. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.

. Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?

. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest

. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route.

. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?

. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

. At the EFC time as amended by ATC.

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?

. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.

. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, procceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route.

. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher.

Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is

. closer to the runway than it actually is.

. farther from the runway than it actually is.

. the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.

Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of

. pitching up.

. pitching down

. leveling off.

What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?

. Does not cause illusions

. Lower than actual.

. Higher than actual.

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?

. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport

. An off-airway route to the point of departure.

. The route filed in the flight plan.

You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot acept any
undue delay.

. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.

. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.

. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly

. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.

. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.

. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline

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